Detention Academy Practice Exam

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• A stigma is defined as:
• Under Idaho's Good Samaritan Act (Idaho Code 5-330), first aid rendered in good faith protects all persons from civil damages.
• When speaking with someone in crisis, which two aspects of communication are most important?
• Which organization can decertify a peace officer?
• ACT stands for:
• Graham v. Connor established which standard for evaluating excessive force claims?
• Which wound type is described as full skin surface removal and may involve heavy bleeding?
• Under Idaho Code 18-112A, the maximum fine for a felony is:
• Consequences for sexual relations with inmates include:
• Observing in communication means noticing appearance, behavior, and environment.
• Which statute defines criminal gangs and criminal gang members in Idaho?
• Detention Officers act as Peace Officers under Idaho Code 20-603 in which scenarios?
• The 14th Amendment includes the right to due process.
• In infection control, which practice is considered most effective in preventing contamination when hands are visibly dirty?
• Idaho's highest court, the final court of appeal, is the Idaho Supreme Court.
• Is it important to come to work well rested and physically fit in order to survive a long career as a detention deputy?
• Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a heart attack?
• Which of the following is a characteristic of a misdemeanor in this context?
• This foundation must be built on which of the following: Values, High morals, Principles, All of the above
• Which Idaho court has jurisdiction over felony criminal cases and civil disputes above $10,000?
• In Idaho, the statute of limitations for murder is:
• Which statement best describes the Good Samaritan Act's protection?
• Which statement about sleep deprivation is incorrect?
• Law Enforcement Officers have been entrusted by their communities to do all of the following, EXCEPT:
• A Tort claim is an action against an individual or entity for committing a civil wrong, resulting in a claimant suffer in loss or harm.
• In a traumatic amputation, how should the severed body part be preserved?
• The U.S. Court of Appeals is broken up into 13 Circuits. Which Circuit does Idaho fall under?
• Which case is commonly associated with balancing inmate rights against correctional interests using a multi-factor test?
• When writing a use-of-force report it is good to include:
• ________is a steroid hormone that is produced by the adrenal glands in the body. It increases the metabolism of glucose and regulates the blood pressure.
• Which statement is true about the Idaho District Court?
• Garrity can be used when:
• Sureno gangs display the number _______ and wear the color _______.
• What does PCN stand for in fingerprint processing?
• After being released as a hostage, or being rescued, you can expect:
• There are no time restrictions for the execution of felony warrants.
• Which amendment protects the right to counsel for detainees?
• Idaho Code 18-6110 states it is a Misdemeanor if caught having sexual relations with an inmate. True/False?
• Butane hash oil is created by the process of pushing liquid butane through a tube packed with marijuana.
• An inmate who is upset at the result of his last court date adds negative pressure that could affect a deputy's survival. This statement is true or false?
• Idaho Code 5-330 is associated with which act?
• _______ speed up the central nervous system, and causes anxiety, paranoia, increased heart rate and reduces appetite.
• Which statement accurately captures the general definition of a drug as used in the material?
• Granting a "One Time" favor is not an example of an inmate Con Game.
• The facts in a trial are determined by the ___________ and the ___________ determines what law applies during a trial.
• In general, the statute of limitations for misdemeanor and felony crimes are:
• Prior to conducting a pat-down on a transgender inmate, what is recommended?
• Which type of stress is defined as residual stress that you cannot let go of such as PTSD?
• During a hostage incident, which perimeter approach is appropriate for officers?
• Which of the following is NOT a warning sign of a heart attack?
• The 14th Amendment provides which of the following rights: Protection against unequal treatment on the basis of race, sex, or religion; Reasonable conditions of confinement for pretrial detainees; The right to due process; All of the above.
• Corruption in law enforcement occurs quickly without warning signs.
• An increase in requests to move units, more fights, inmates hoarding supplies, and changes in inmate communication are signs of what?
• Which of the following is not a red flag that could lead an agency to have concerns with an officer?
• Which statement describes Stockholm Syndrome?
• In tort law, which description best captures proximate cause?
• Of the four stages exhibited by the hostage taker during the crisis, which is depicted by: stuttering or yelling loudly, using threatening profanity, trying to push your 'buttons', clenched fists, and profuse sweating.
• Current stress is defined as:
• Which signs indicate illness may factor into behavior?
• Which elements contribute to reasonable suspicion for a strip search?
• What is the next step after the warrant, probable cause, or grand jury stage in a criminal case?
• What are the four causes of ethical violations within Law Enforcement?
• Which amendment extends due process protections to individuals at the state level?
• Which case established the standard that prison regulations, including mail policies, must be reasonably related to legitimate penological interests?
• Which statement accurately reflects the use-of-force standard discussed?
• Under Section 1983, liability can be established when the defendant's actions were performed under color of state law.
• Who was the first person to study the persistence/permanence of friction ridge skin?
• The development of psychotropic medication in the 1970s made treatment of severe and persistent mental illness in the community possible. (T/F)
• When documenting a use of force, it is important to utilize the objectively reasonable standard, and articulate the facts of the incident.
• Which statement best describes why inmates participate in con games?
• Your use of force is justified based on which of the following factors?
• Which distance zone is classified as Social in the given model?
• The 14th Amendment provides the right to due process at the state level. (T/F)
• The 14th Amendment provides reasonable conditions of confinement for pretrial detainees.
• Under Idaho Code 18-6110, sexual relations with an inmate are classified as a felony.
• When do friction ridges begin to develop?
• Ten-print cards include rolled fingerprints and simultaneous impressions.
• The material states that corruption can occur without warning signs.
• Which amendment is associated with due process protections for individuals mentioned in the material?
• Which rights are provided by the 14th Amendment according to the material?
• Routine male pat searches of female inmates violates which amendment:
• Which Supreme Court case under the Eighth Amendment requires correctional facilities to provide medical care to inmates?
• In tort law, which element links the defendant's conduct to the plaintiff's injury in a legal sense?
• Which amendment protects inmates from cruel or unusual punishment?
• Having a plan of action, keeping uninvolved inmates away from the area of an emergency, and always keeping inmates under observation are ways to:
• There are five basic skills for sizing up a situation.
• Which outcome is not expected under zero-tolerance policy?
• Estell v. Gamble addresses which constitutional protection for prisoners?
• Article 1, Section 17 of the Idaho Constitution provides the same protections as the 4th amendment to the U.S. Constitutions. (T/F)
• During a hostage situation, which duty is included for assisting officers?
• What must a plaintiff prove in order to prevail in a Section 1983 lawsuit?
• The use of police jargon and legalese is encouraged.
• If conducting a pat-down search on a Transgender individual, what would be the best practice before the search is started?
• Section 1983 actions enable monetary damages for violations of constitutional rights by individuals acting under state authority.
• Which of the following is a possible goal for taking a hostage?
• The general punishment for misdemeanor offenses includes:
• In the stroke assessment, what does the 'A' component indicate?
• According to the Idaho Tort Claims Act a government entity is required, in almost all instances, to provide a defense to its employee against any claims brought against the employee.
• In crisis situations, empathetic understanding includes which action?
• When writing reports, you should be:
• To prevent escalating a situation, a deputy should not:
• Which of the following case laws refers to the Reasonable Officer Doctrine?
• Which concept describes ensuring force is proportional to the threat?
• A Bench Warrant is:
• Fill in the blank: Turner v Safley 482 U.S. 78 (1987) states: 'When a prison regulation impinges on inmates constitutional rights, the regulation is valid if it is related to a legitimate _______________ interest'
• The ACT Model focuses solely on holding others accountable.
• Which degree of burn develops painful red skin with blisters?
• ______ stress is stress that is suffered for a prolonged period of time in which an individual perceives they have little or no control.
• The statement that future stress triggers a flight-or-fight response intended to be temporary is:
• According to Idaho Code 19-610, how much force may an officer use?
• Brady v. Maryland also brought about the term 'Brady-Dead,' which means if you are found to be untruthful you are no longer credible and your career will end.
• In official reporting, the term 'narcotic' is interchangeable with 'drug' and may be used without caution.
• Ten-print cards consist of
• Which of the following can be a side effect of sleep deprivation?
• In the life of a criminal case what is the next step after Arraignment?
• Which combination of reporting channels is explicitly described as acceptable for reporting corruption?
• Marijuana is an example of which schedule of drug?
• Of the following list, all are negative attributes of law enforcement with one exception. Which is the exception?
• To prevent escalating a situation, a deputy should:
• What impact has the utilization of Section 1983 had on jails, prisons, law enforcement, and correction agencies?
• The ACT Model focuses solely on holding others accountable.
• Factors for whether a search is 'unreasonable' in a correctional/detention setting are?
• Which of the following are long-term effects of stress in law enforcement?
• A deputy being overly friendly and familiar with inmates when they are new will help prevent falling for an inmate con game.
• The stages of hostage reactions include ______, delusions of a reprieve, busy work, and beginning taking stock in life.
• Which factor is NOT typically considered an element of a crime?
• Hudson v. McMillan is associated with which concept in evaluating use of force?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the federal court system?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of inmate likely to create a hostage situation?
• In evaluating whether a prison regulation burdens a constitutional right, the Turner test requires a rational connection to a legitimate government interest.
• If a debrief does not occur with the hostages after the incident is over, what could be a result?
• Which list contains ALL the essential elements of a report?
• Which statement about fingerprint pattern groups is accurate?
• When writing reports, police cannot make assumptions.
• An officer's field notes are subject to discovery under Idaho Criminal Rule 16.
• Which of the following is considered a security error that could endanger a Detention Deputy?
• Which case established the rule that deadly force may not be used against a fleeing suspect unless there is probable cause of imminent threat?
• What is the maximum imprisonment for misdemeanor offenses in county jail?
• Which is an employment consequence if you have sexual contact with an inmate?
• Retainable offenses, as referenced in Idaho law, require agencies to obtain and file fingerprints on certain individuals.
• The most dangerous time as a hostage is:
• When filling out a Criminal Fingerprint Card you should enter the disposition prior to submitting the card.
• Consent decrees are agreements, approved by courts, to make certain improvements in the conditions of correctional facilities.
• Qualified immunity is the type of immunity a peace officer is entitled to if he/she acts in accordance with clearly established law.
• Which amendment protects individuals from unlawful searches and seizures?
• In tort claims, which statement best describes 'duty'?
• Officers should only be concerned with laws and politics, not their personal moral actions.
• What is the primary reason for thoroughly documenting mistakes made during an investigation?
• What right does the 6th Amendment provide?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the ten requirements of proper report writing?
• What are the five steps of Cultural Competence?
• What is the correct order of the ABCs in primary assessment?
• Mental confusion, dizziness, headache, weakness and/or paralysis on one side of the body and/or face are signs that someone may be experiencing, what?
• Which symptom is most likely to indicate a stroke?
• Zero tolerance policy means you can expect all of the following EXCEPT:
• Legal mail may only be opened and inspected for contraband
• During a primary victim assessment the acronym ABC should be used. What does ABC stand for?
• When addressing an inmate's individual rule violation, which approach is most appropriate?
• Which of the following is NOT an indicator of cocaine use?
• Which case law is associated with the Fleeing Felon doctrine?
• Which statement about bail on arrest warrants is true?
• Which statement about the Idaho Court of Appeals is correct?
• In what instance would a governmental entity be allowed to refuse a defense, or pay a judgment against an employee?
• Personal Time with a deputy is sometimes the goal of a high level inmate Con Game.
• The statement 'Failure to keep your word is not a problem for a Detention Deputy since inmates likely do this on the outside all of the time' is true or false?
• When dealing with an inmate in crisis, empathetic understanding suggests you:
• Consent decrees are court-approved agreements to improve correctional facility conditions.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four goals of communication?
• Friction ridges are located on what areas of the body?
• Training in acute stress and traumatic reactions is important for which groups?
• What is the statute of limitations to file a claim under the Civil Rights Act Title 42 USC 1983?
• Which of the following statements about bench warrants is accurate?
• Fill in the blanks: "Stress can be defined as a state of _______ or emotional strain, or _______ resulting from adverse or very demanding circumstance."
• Under certain circumstances, Detention Deputies can be held liable for failing to protect inmates from assaults from other officers.
• When conducting a strip search on a Transgender inmate it does not matter what gender you are or what gender the inmate identifies with?
• Which statement about debriefing after an incident is true?
• During an inmate emergency, which practice best enhances deputy safety?
• Reasonable Suspicion includes:
• Which statement best describes proper communication tactics a deputy can use to lower the threat from an inmate?
• Butane hash oil is created by the process of pushing liquid butane through a tube packed with marijuana.
• The Law Enforcement Code of Ethics is standards or rules of conduct by which Law Enforcement Officers Live.
• Idaho Code 67-3004 requires agencies to obtain and file fingerprints, physical descriptions and other available identifying data on persons who have been arrested for retainable offenses.
• The material suggests that being overly friendly with inmates when they are new is a reliable way to avoid inmate con games.
• Which of the following is NOT a minutia type used in fingerprint comparison?
• Which of the following best describes the approach to handling sexual misconduct with inmates according to zero-tolerance policy?
• Which of the following is a sign of impending trouble with inmates?
• Under the Civil Rights Act Title 42 USC 1983, what is the statute of limitations for filing a claim?
• Which of the following list the four elements of a tort claim?
• In the life of a criminal case flow, what is the next step after bail is set?
• Which amendment is primarily associated with protecting the right to a speedy trial?
• An officer does not need to establish probable cause in order to make an arrest as long as he or she has confirmed the identity of a subject, and that said identification matches a valid existing arrest warrant.
• A wound described as full skin surface removed or torn, which may involve heavy bleeding, is called what?
• Applicant Fingerprint Cards require the reason for being fingerprinted.
• It is a violation of an inmate's 8th amendment right to deny them contact visits.
• A Felony is:
• Turner v. Safley is associated with guidelines for prison policies regulating inmate correspondence. What is the standard used to assess such policies?
• In an unconscious victim, the tongue is the most common airway obstruction. How should this be cleared?
• The statement 'The 14th Amendment protects equal protection under the law' is:
• Probable cause is defined by:
• After hostages are released, what action is recommended?
• Which item is NOT typically included in a use-of-force report?
• First aid for a gunshot or stabbing wound includes which of the following?
• Mental Illness is defined as
• Deliberate indifference is:
• What is the set up stage of a Con Game?
• AFIS and Livescan quality statement: They require good quality prints and cannot clear up poor quality.
• Which right protects the right against unreasonable searches and seizures?
• EMS should be activated if a seizure lasts longer than how many minutes?
• Which practice is correct regarding avoiding jargon in reporting?
• Factors regarding reasonable suspicion to conduct a strip search include:
• Someone may have a head injury if they display which of the following symptoms?
• When communicating with people there are names used to describe spatial differences. Which of the following is not one of the distances discussed?
• Being able to identify content when communicating allows you to
• Which of the following are factors examined by the Turner test?
• The best way to prevent an inmate from pushing your limits and boundaries is:
• Which statement is a myth about misconduct and contact between staff and inmates?
• Which statement about the Idaho Court of Appeals is correct?
• Due process rights at the state level are ensured by which amendment?
• Drug is defined as:
• Friction ridges are defined as:
• Which of the following is NOT a Graham v. Connor factor?
• After PCN assignment, what must occur before updating criminal history records?
• Which amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures?
• Which set correctly lists the three Graham v. Connor factors used in evaluating government interest in use‑of‑force cases?
• Which amendment addresses due process rights at the state level?
• According to I.C. 19-5101(d), a County Detention Officer is responsible for:
• The three main governing factors of gang ideology are respect, retaliation, and representation.
• Fingerprints are used to identify individuals because prints are:
• Narcotic is a term that has the same meaning as the term 'drug', and we do not need to worry about how we use it in reports or court.
• Which of the following is NOT a typical physical effect of heroin use?
• What emotional response might hostages exhibit after release or rescue?
• There are five basic skills for sizing up a situation. Which of the following is not one of the basic skills?
• Which substance would present symptoms such as anxiety, dilated pupils, dry mouth, teeth grinding and increased heart rate?
• What is the largest street gang in the State of Idaho?
• Maintaining a healthy lifestyle has a positive effect on job performance, health, and quality of life.
• To manage behavior effectively, a deputy should leave an inmate without choices.
• The Sixth Amendment right to counsel protects a pretrial detainee's right to see their attorney while incarcerated.
• Which step comes second in the 4-Step Tactical Negotiation Plan?
• On an Arrest Warrant, bail may be fixed but is not required.
• There are three main pattern groups for fingerprints. Which is NOT one?
• Which amendment protects against self-incrimination?
• When describing property, it is best to include:
• A sucking chest wound on the left side requires which of the following dressings?
• Which of the following is one of the two most likely times an inmate may decide to take a hostage?
• Under the Fourth Amendment, correctional officials must give an announcement or warning prior to searching an inmate's living quarters.
• Mistakes made in and during an investigation need to be:
• Which U.S. Supreme Court case requires the prosecution team to disclose, to the defendant, all evidence that is material to guilt or punishment?
• Which fact is true about the Idaho Criminal Gang Enforcement Act?
• Which statement best reflects the Fourth Amendment standard for use of force?
• The right to due process is protected under which amendment?
• Physical effects of heroin use include all of the following, EXCEPT:
• Which of the following is NOT a right granted to inmates by the First Amendment?
• Pretrial detainees are entitled to what kind of conditions under the 14th Amendment?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic elements of a crime?
• What right does the 14th amendment of the U.S. Constitution provide?
• An infraction is NOT punishable by imprisonment.
• The right to a speedy trial is protected under which amendment?
• A purpose of zero-tolerance policies is to deter staff from having sexual relations with inmates.
• Five key behaviors to indicate to others you are hearing what they are saying to you:
• An inmate with significant mental health history is brought back into custody. This inmate expresses that he is feeling nauseated, very dizzy and is having suicidal thoughts. The inmate's symptoms are likely caused by:
• Under Idaho Code 18-4011, when is homicide by an officer justifiable?
• Which of the following statements accurately reflects the scheduling of Diazepam, Anabolic Steroids, and Clonazepam according to the material?
• Prison gangs are not very organized and tend to not have formal "chains of command".
• Is the statement 'A sucking chest wound left untreated will only lead to excessive blood loss' true or false?
• The Reasonable Officer Doctrine relates to evaluating use-of-force with which constitutional standard?
• There are several consequences of breaching the public's trust by an officer. Which of the following is NOT necessarily considered one of the consequences?
• Which amendment is commonly associated with the protection of due process for individuals at risk of state action?
• If taken hostage, you should NOT expect the hostage taker to demonstrate his power through a show of violence.
• Which of the following is a method used by drug abusers to obtain prescription drugs?
• Which statement best describes the relationship between acceptance and self-awareness in cultural competence?
• The five basic elements of a crime include name/identity, date, location, act/omission, and intent.
• Which option is an acceptable method for reporting corruption?
• Which phrase is included in the five steps of Cultural Competence?
• Which option correctly lists the five steps of Cultural Competence?
• There are four levels of discriminate listening. Which refers to evaluating the information received?
• Acceptance and Self-Awareness are the first two steps to cultural competence.
• The availability of psychotropic medication in the 1970s affected community treatment by:
• When attempting to control bleeding, you should apply pressure to the primary artery below the wound. True or false?
• Which acronym is listed as an indicator that you are hearing what someone is saying?
• Which statement about the Six Pillars of Character is accurate?
• Fingerprint records may be maintained in which formats according to Idaho code?
• Beginning to believe in the cause of the hostage takers is typically referred to as:
• The 14th Amendment provides protection against unequal treatment on the basis of race, sex, or religion.
• In the F.A.S.T. stroke assessment, what does the 'A' stand for?
• Ethics in law enforcement refers to which of the following?
• Generally, when an individual is avoiding eye contact they are typically indicating which behavior
• Legal mail can also be referred to as privileged mail.
• In the event of an emergency childbirth, what is the first thing you should do?
• If Miranda rights are given then questions asked will be related to a criminal investigation. Which of the following is correct?
• Clonazepam is classified as which drug schedule in the material?
• Which action is NOT a proper communication tactic when de-escalating tensions with an inmate?
• Which organization processes print cards and assigns PCN?
• Keeping the distance of 24 to 48 inches would fall into which zone?
• A Schedule I drug has a high potential for abuse, has no currently accepted medical use in the U.S., and has a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision.
• Observing in effective communication refers to the ability to notice and understand an individual's appearance, behavior, and environment.
• Detention Deputies may be liable if they fail to protect inmates from which groups?
• According to the CDC, which of the following is the best means for preventing contamination?
• What are valid reasons for officers to write formal reports?
• Idaho Code ______ states the fingerprint requirement for criminal history records.
• All of the following are pre-assault indicators EXCEPT:
• Head injury indicators include which of the following?
• Which factor is NOT a Turner test factor?
• If accused of excessive force, you could be civilly and criminally liable.
• A report should be written when you are involved in an incident that affects life, liberty, or property.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the Six Pillars of Character?
• Which of the following is NOT a Minutia that examiners use to compare prints?
• Which statement best describes chronic stress?
• The clock on a criminal statute of limitations stops running when the defendant is out of state.
• Which case established the objective reasonableness standard for evaluating police use of force?
• The best course of action when dealing with someone with a mental illness is to agree with their reality so they do not become upset. (T/F)
• Hudson v. McMillan established the concept of the 'good faith' when evaluating a use of force. (T/F)
• If taken hostage, you should NOT allow your hostage taker to talk.
• Future stress is the 'flight-or-fight' response that your body triggers in times of duress but is meant to be temporary.
• What step generally occurs after an arrest in the criminal process described?
• Which statement best captures proper report writing practice?
• If Miranda rights are administered, questions asked must relate to what?
• Which of the following is a recommended boundary in dealing with inmate con games?
• Which type of thrust is recommended for a choking victim who is obese or pregnant?
• The best way to protect yourself from inmate Con Games?
• POST can decertify you without the approval of your agency.
• Deadly force is considered seizure by which amendment?
• Which statement about AFIS and Livescan is correct?
• Which statement best describes an infraction?
• The standard of proof in criminal cases is:
• Diazepam, Anabolic Steroids, and Clonazepam are examples of which drug schedule?
• When a person's ability to cope has been overwhelmed after something happening to them, they are:
• Which Idaho Code states 'the defendant must not be subjected to any more restraint than is necessary for his arrest and detention'?
• When clearing a foreign body airway obstruction in an obese or pregnant person, where should hand placement be before performing thrusts?
• Short term effects of stress can include absenteeism, excessive aggressiveness, and alcoholism.
• Which state is associated with the information about gang enforcement?
• An officer that follows 'Clearly Established' Federal Law does not have Absolute Immunity and can be sued for their acts or omissions in that specific case.
• Which is the final court of appeal in the State of Idaho?
• The Idaho Criminal Gang Enforcement Act mandates extended sentences for gang members, and establishes definitions for both criminal gangs, and criminal gang members.
• Which statement best describes documenting actions and observations?
• The Federal District Court for the District of Idaho hears which types of cases?
• Which set shows historical gender core values for men?
• Which statement best describes the required state action in a Section 1983 claim?
• Effective communication skills will enable you to respond _________ instead of _________.
• True or False: A tourniquet should be tight enough to decrease bright red bleeding and left on the victim until a medical expert can remove it.
• What is the correct order for the 4-Step Tactical Negotiation Plan?
• Which act requires inmates to exhaust administrative or state law remedies before filing a section 1983 lawsuit?
• State laws cannot provide less protection of constitutional rights than federal law.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the general gang categories?
• Winning is about _______ and _______.
• A bench warrant can be issued only after a judge directs the clerk to issue the warrant. Which statement best reflects this process?
• Inmates participate in Con Games to do which of the following?
• Regarding pat-down searches, no individualized suspicion is required if:
• Which of the following is NOT listed as a potential side effect of sleep deprivation?
• The right to medical care for inmates is associated with which amendment?
• Which option correctly identifies a security risk in a detention setting?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the federal court system's primary levels?
• Second-degree burns are typically characterized by.
• Which factor is most directly related to the proportionality of force?
• An inmate upset about the result of court proceedings adds negative pressure that could affect deputy survival. Is this statement true?
• Which statement accurately describes the essential elements of a report?
• You could be personally liable for civil damages if you have sexual contact with an inmate.
• Graham v. Connor established which standard for evaluating the use of force by law enforcement?